QUESTION TYPES IN CRITICAL REASONING

Critical reasoning questions will ask you to do any of the following:

(1) Test for the strengthening of an argument with (a) additional evidence (b) additional reasons/arguments.

(2) Test for the weakening of an argument with (a) additional evidence (b) additional reasons/arguments.

(3) Identify an assumption.

(4) Identify an inference.

(5) Select the best concluding statement for a paragraph.

(6) Summarise the argument.

(7) Segregate relevant and irrelevant information.

(8) Evaluate the method of the argument.

(9) Identify the IlawsZfallacies in an argument.

(10) Identify Cause and Effect relationships.

Question type 1: The strengthening of an Argument

The claim of an argument is supported by reasons or evidences. In questions on strengthening of the argument, the question will ask you to select from amongst the four/five options, the one that strengthens the argument. Arguments can be strengthened in two ways: either through the introduction of some supporting evidence or the introduction of some supporting reasons. Hence, these questions might ask you to select an option that provides either supporting evidence or supporting reasons.

Besides, if we have an option that strengthens an assumption that is the key to the argument’s claim, then that option will also strengthen the argument.

In a figurative sense, if you look at the argument as a building with supports, then supporting evidences/reasons provide us with additional supports to the claim of the question. In such questions, while evaluating the options, you should try to assess which option best supports the claim of the argument. The strengthening evidence/reason might be stronger/equal to/or weaker than the explicitly stated evidences/reasons in the argument. However, in order to find out the correct answer to such questions, you do not need to compare the quality of the support an option provides with respect to the explicitly stated supports.

fy. One of the most important and constructive reforms in National Politics has been the abolition of the post of State Ministers in the various departments.

Each of the following, if true, would strengthen the above argument, except

(A) There are few, if any, specific duties or responsibilities assigned to the State Minister in any department.

(B) A historian claimed that the post was “superfluous.”

(C) People of Cabinet Minister caliber normally refuse the post if offered a ministership in the guise of a state minister.

(D) The office is used as a means of appeasing regional parties, by giving their MPs ministerial status and perks without giving them, any significant responsibilities.

The correct answer is B.

Question Type 2: The Weakening of an Argument

These questions are very similar to strengthening argument questions—the only difference being that they are on the other side of the fence. Similar to the strengthening of arguments, weakening of arguments can also be done by the introduction of additional evidence and/ or reasons that attack the basis of the claim of the argument.

After identifying the claim in an argument and the supports provided for the claim, you will need to evaluate each option for the degree to which it goes towards weakening the argument. The evidence/ reason that most/least seriously weakens, the supports of the argument’s claim would be the answer (depending upon what you have been asked to identify).

In a figurative sense, the weakening evidence/reasons are like attacks on the pillars of the building—(i.e., they attack the supports of the argument’s claim).

Besides, if we have an option that weakens an assumption that is key to the argument’s claim, then that option will also have the effect of weakening the argument. Let us look at a few examples that will make this question type clear to you:

Before the arrival of a new trainer, the sales output in AMS Learning Systems Ltd. had been rising by 20% per year on the average over the past ten years. However, after new training innovations by the trainer (which included computerisation of training processes and reductions in the need for additional work force) annual sales output has only risen by 10% this year. It appears that Joe’s innovations have caused the reduction in the annual growth rate.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion above?

(A) The investment in computerisation has a provision for depreciation of the cost of the computers.

(B) Increases in selling price did not follow increases in the cost of the inputs.

(C) The innovations brought in by the new trainer were intended as long-term investments and not made for short­term profit growth.

(D) General demand for the training provided by the company has declined.

The correct answer is D.

In the past, to run for one’s country in the Asiad was the ultimate achievement of any athlete. Nowadays, an athlete’s motives are more and more influenced by financial gain, and consequently, we do not see our best athletes in the Asiad, which is still only for amateurs.

Which of the following will most weaken the above conclusion?

(A) The publicity and fame that can be achieved by competing in the Asiad makes the athletes who do so, more “marketable” by agents and potential sponsors.

(B) The spirit of the Asiad places emphasis on participation rather than on the winning of the race.

(C) A leading columnist recently argued on the basis of concrete evidence that our best Asiad athletes already receive enough in terms of promotions and sponsorships.

(D) It has been suggested that professional athletes should be allowed to compete in the games.

In these times of growing economic turbulence, unless new reserves are found soon, the world’s supply of natural gases is being depleted in such a way that with demand continuing to grow at the present rates, reserves will be exhausted by the year 2200 AD.

Which of the following, if true, will most weaken the above argument?

(A) There has been a slowdown in the rate of increase in world demand for natural gases over the last decade, from 20% to 10%.

(B) It has been known for many years that there are vast stocks of natural gases under Antarctica, which have yet to be economically exploited.

(C) Electricity is being used increasingly in place of natural gases for many industrial and domestic uses.

(D) None of the above.

id="Picutre 268" class="lazyload" data-src="/files/uch_group76/uch_pgroup316/uch_uch7362/image/image267.jpg">In accordance with their powers, many zilla panchayats are introducing chlorination of the drinking water provided to families through the water supply system. This follows the conclusion of 10 years of research that the process ensures that children and adults receive the required intake of fluoride that will strengthen teeth. The maximum level has been set at one part per million. However, there are many who object, claiming that chlorination removes freedom of choice.

Which of the following will weaken the claim of the proponents of chlorination?

(A) Chlorination over a certain prescribed level has been shown to lead to a general weakening of teeth.

(B) There is no record of the long-term effects of drinking chlorinated water on dental and general health.

(C) In a study done at the grassroots level, it was found that some people to be affected by chlorination claim that they have not had sufficient opportunity to voice their views about the issue.

(D) Water already contains natural chlorine.

Question Type 3: Identify an Assumption

We have already looked at assumptions in details. This question type asks you to identify the assumption in the paragraph. The following examples will make it clear to you:

In response to the criticism about the methods used by his poll predicting agency, a leading psephologist Mannoy Toy, replied: “I realise there are some shortcomings to the questionnaire method that we have applied to do the survey However, since we have ensured that we send a copy of the questionnaire to every home in each of the constituency where we have carried out our survey, we believe the results to be quite representative..................................................................................................................................... We think the numbers

received are so large that it overcomes the lack of a scientific approach that might have crept into our survey. The writer of the above statement makes which of the following assumptions?

(A) A high proportion of the respondents who have received the questionnaire have replied to the same.

(B) A majority of the voters in the constituency live in homes.

(C) The method of data collection used by the agency is unscientific.

(D) A large, absolute number of replies automatically guarantees the accuracy of the results.

) A recent survey by a leading NGO came to the following conclusion about donor psychology:

If you are interested in getting a good donation, you need to realise that donors are almost never disturbed by being asked for too much.

The above statement assumes that

(A) Donors are usually never asked for enough.

(B) A good fund raiser will value the worth of the donor.

(C) It is worth the gamble to ask for large donations.

(D) None of these.

New age problems require new age solutions. Further new age problems arise with new age populations and new age technologies. In order to find solutions to these problems we need to build new age institutions as well as new age political, economic and social mechanisms. Yet, institutions and political and economic mechanisms grow slowly and die slowly. Hence, new age institutions should be given every chance of trying to achieve success in their objectives. The argument above rests on which of the following assumptions:

(A) New age institutions are needed because old institutions are inefficient.

(B) New age institutions are created in order to solve existing problems.

(C) Over a course of time, as an institution grows, it has chances of succeeding in its objectives.

(D) None of these

In its quest to go global, once an Indian company has established an extensive sales network in a foreign market and therefore, has achieved substantial sales, it seems that these markets should be treated in a very similar fashion to those in India. It is therefore only in those countries where only initial sales networks have been developed, where marketing methods will have to differ from the methods applied in India.

The above statement assumes that:

(A) Sales networks can be the same in both foreign countries and in India.

(B) Extensive sales networks are preferable to less developed ones.

(C) The markets of some countries will develop faster than others.

(D) None of these.

The main monetary policy objective is to reduce substantially, the import surplus of the coming years while resuming economic growth. Realisation of this goal entails a marked structural change of the economy, which can be brought about by freezing the standard of living (per capita private consumption plus public services) and restricting investments that do not further exports.

The writer of the above policy assumes that:

(A) Economic growth will lead to structural changes in the economy.

(B) If people consume less, the economy grows.

(C) In order to reduce import surplus investment needs to be restricted.

(D) People should be persuaded to give up consumption in order to achieve the national good.

The reason that is most commonly quoted for nationalisation of foreign companies is a change in governance. Nationalisation tends to cover a wide range of industries and is not selective to the country of ownership of the foreign company.

The above statement assumes that:

(A) Some critical industries are more likely to be nationalised than others which might not be so critical.

(B) The process of nationalisation is not limited to any particular industry or country.

(C) Nationalisation Ofbusinesses is so widespread as to cause concern at the international level

(D) Sharing ownership with local nationals will forestall takeovers by foreign governments.

QuestionType 4: Identify an Inference/Conclusion

We have already discussed inferences and conclusions in details. Questions related to these will ask you to spot the option that is/is not an inference or a conclusion that can be drawn from the details mentioned in the paragraph. Consider the following examples, which will clarify to you how questions about inferences are structured:

A pill that can induce abortions in pregnant women has become available in Australia. The drug Antiperphrine, has proved more than 98.9% effective in tests conducted by a scientific team in Sydney. The drug is an anti hormone and disrupts pregnancy by blocking the implantation of a fertilized egg in the wall of the uterus. InAustralia, the ð³ê will be available to women who are upto 42 days late in their menstrual cycle. The company that manufactures the pill, states however, that the pill is not a “morning after” pill for use as a contraceptive.

Which of the following statements can be correctly deduced from the text above?

(A) The drug Antiperphrine uses a new type of contraceptive method.

(B) The drug Antiperphrine blocks egg production.

(C) The drug Antiperphrine has the effect of termination of pregnancy.

(D) The drug is only available in Australia.

One of the most important measures of a country’s trading strength is the measurement of its net exports. Net exports are defined as exports less imports. It is important since the figure measures the net effect of a nation’s trade in goods and services vis-a-vis the world. In 1998, the country’s net exports were 7 percent of its GDP (Gross Domestic Product) and in 2005, they were 14 percent.

If the information above is accurate, which of the following must be true?

(A) If GDP was constant from 1998 to 2005, net exports were greater in 2005 than in 1998.

(B) Exports were greater than imports in 2005, but not in 1998.

(C) Exports doubled from 1998 to 2005.

(D) In 1998, net exports were lower than in 2005.

About 40 percent of urban Indian husbands think it is a good idea for wives with school age children to work outside the home. Only about ten percent of rural Indian husbands approve of the same. Every second urban Indian wife, and one in four rural Indian wives with school age children has a job outside her home.

If the information above is correct, which of the following can be inferred?

(A) Rural Indian families have more children than urban Indian families.

(B) Employment opportunities for urban Indian wives are greater than for rural Indian wives.

(C) Urban Indian husbands have a less conservative attitude than rural Indian husbands.

(D) Rural Indian husbands would seem to be less satisfied about working wives who have school age children than urban Indian husbands.

Paro overslept. Therefore, she was late for school by the time she got ready. Hence, she did not eat her breakfast. As she realised that she was late for her school bus, she ran as fast as she could from her home to the bus stop and did not see a banana skin that was lying on the ground in her path. She slipped on the banana skin and fractured her leg. Some passersby took her to the hospital and while lying in bed she was visited by her friend Dhanno, who wanted to know why she had got up so late.

Which of the following conclusions can be made from the above passage?

(A) Because Paro did not eat her breakfast, she broke her ankle.

(B) Paro’s friend visited her in the hospital because she wanted to know why she was in the hospital

(C) Paro did not notice the banana skin because she overslept.

(D) Paro’s fractured leg meant that she did not go to school that day.

6^The correct answer is D.

A recent study on medicine addiction found out that there are principally three main factors that determine the risk of becoming dependant on or addicted to medicines. The first factor is the type of medicine, the second is the personality of the individual, and the third factor is controlled by the circumstances in which the medicine is taken. As a parallel example, we only need to look as far as alcohol. While it could be safely said that the majority of the adult population have taken alcohol, yet only a small proportion of these go on to get addicted to alcohol Besides, it is well documented that many strong medicines that have been used for medical purposes have not caused the patient to become addicted. However, the study found that people who took medicines for the heck of it were more likely to become dependent on the same. The dependence need not be restricted to the physiological side but may become psychological, although the effects are still essentially the same. People with psychopathic, immature or otherwise unstable personalities were shown to be at the greatest risk of becoming addicted.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the text?

(A) One becomes addicted to certain medicines only if one has a weak personality.

(B) Taking medicines for the fun of it increases the possibility of becoming dependent on medicines.

(C) Alcohol is a safe medicine since very few people become dependent on it.

(D) Long-term use of certain drugs for medical purposes does not cause addiction.

An advertisement for a leading racquet manufacturer made the following claim:

The last five Wimbledon men’s single champions have all changed to Head’s new tennis rackets—the only racket that uses genuine nano technology in its frame. In that case, isn’t now the time to add power to your tennis strokes and to trade in your old racket for a Head?

Which of the following claims is not made and cannot be inferred from the above ad?

(A) Frames strengthened by nano-technology are used only in Head’s new rackets.

(B) Nano technology strengthened frames make tennis rackets stronger and allow the player to make more powerful strokes.

(C) Former Wimbledon champions know a great deal about tennis and their equipment.

(D) Head tennis rackets helped the last five Wimbledon men’s’ singles champions achieve their status.

Question Type 5: Select the Best Concluding Statement of a Paragraph

In this type of question, a paragraph is given and four alternative concluding statements are given for the same. You are required to choose the option that best concludes the paragraph. These questions first made their appearance in the CAT 2005 examination and sparked huge debates amongst the student community about their answers.

The reason for the confusion was that when read normally, each of the four options for the concluding sentence, logically followed the material of the text in the paragraph. However, in these questions the key to deducing the one correct option is the ability to understand the author’s opinion (Advanced Reading Skill 5 from Part I of this book.). Once you have identified the author’s opinion, you can evaluate the options for the concluding sentence by trying to fit in the one option that made the most ‘concluding sense’ in the context of the author’s opinion about the topic.

By trying to fit the concluding sense of each option, we mean to say that you need to compare how each sentence concludes the argument, i.e., winds up the points made by the author and best conveys the author’s opinion about the topic.

Further, the concluding sentence also needs to be a conclusion of the paragraph. It should not leave the scope of further carrying the paragraph’s discussion forward. The following examples will help you understand this type of question:

Complete the following paragraph with the most suitable sentence.

In order to boost sales of toys at times other than the peak sale time, toy-manufacturers take recourse to the use of several techniques. Some of these include promoting character toys from Bollywood and Hollywood movies or TV series. AU these sets are marketed as “coUectibles” for the young consumers. The coUections within a family of CoUectibles, however, never appear to be complete (especially to the parents). As soon as aU the characters are acquired, the chUd then requires the associated gadgets and gizmos that are bundled into the CoUectible set. Thus parents go shopping for the “car,” the “home,” the “mobUe home,” and even the “airplane” to ensure a happy homely environment for the toys. Ultimately, just as the elusive final piece of the series is attained, the manufacturer and promoter release the next series of “coUectibles.”

The prime aim of the manufacturer and promoter is to ensure that

(A) aU chUdren should be happy and no child can be happy without a complete series of toys.

(B) as soon as one set is complete or almost complete, then the next one arrives on the scene.

(C) children should be encouraged to complete their coUections of toys.

(D) sales need to be artificially bolstered throughout the year.

Γhe correct answer is D.

Let us now look at the foUowing examples from the CAT 2005:

Federer’s fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is certainly not lacking in confidence, but he wasn’t about to proclaim himself the best ever. “The best player of this generation, yes” he said, “But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the records that some guys have. Γm a minnow.”__________________________________________________________________________________

1. His win against Agassi, a genius of the previous generation, contradicts that.

2. Sampras, the king of an earher generation, was as humble.

3. He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.

4. The difference between ‘the best of this generation’ and ‘the best ever’ is a matter of perception.

Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisis at all, but merely one of many embarrassing fits of hubris in civilization’s long industry. In the end, it wiU pass away and be forgotten. Ours is not the first generation to struggle to understand the organizational laws of the frontier, deceive itself that it has succeeded, and go to its grave having faUed.______

1. One would be wise to be humble.

2. But we might be the first generation to actually reach the frontier.

3. But we might be the first generation to deal with the crisis.

4. However, this time the success is not illusory.

Dptions 2 & 4 seem to indicate that we might have reached the frontier. But by it’s very definition, the frontier of knowledge can never be reached. Hence, you can eliminate these answers. Further, if you consider option 3, it talks about dealing with the crisis—which does not exist at all according to the first sentence of the paragraph. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1.

Most firms consider expert individuals to be too elitist, temperamental, egocentric, and difficult to work with. Force such people to collaborate on a high stakes project and they just might come to fisticuffs. Even the very notion of managing such a group seems unimaginable. So most organizations will fall into default mode, setting up project teams of people who get along nicely.

1. Theresulthoweverisdisastrous.

2. The result is mediocrity.

3. The result is the creation of experts who then become elitists.

4. Naturally, they drive innovations.

Γhe paragraph clearly states that teams are formed on the basis of people’s ability to get along with each other (rather than on their merit with respect to the task at hand). Obviously, this leads to a compromise in the quality of the work being performed. Hence, Option 4 is eliminated. Option 1 simply does not follow from the previous sentence since the word however indicates that the author should be contradicting his previous idea with this sentence. However, if you analyse the ideas in the last sentence of the paragraph and the Option 1, you will clearly see that there is no contrast between the two ideas.

Option 3 talks about an effect that is highly improbable in the context. Option 2 is perfect since you will expect mediocrity when you create a team on the basis of parameters other than ability.

The audiences for crosswords and sudoku, understandably, overlap greatly, but there are differences, too. A crossword attracts a more literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly logical mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks depth. A good crossword requires vocabulary, knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes even a sense of humor to complete it. It touches numerous areas of life and provides an ‘Aha! ’ or two along the way.

1. Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.

2. Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in popularity than crosswords even among the literate.

3. Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted and enjoyed even by children.

4. Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense of the term.

In order to solve the above question, you need to understand that you are looking for the option that best ‘completes’ the paragraph. The structural construct under which we reach the last sentence of the paragraph is that of a comparison between crosswords and sudokus. The author has shown a clear bias towards crosswords—and in fact is in the process of explaining his sentence ‘Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks depth.^, So obviously, after praising crosswords, he has to talk in a dark light about sudoku. Option 1 has the perfect fit under this structure. Although Option 4 is also negative in its construction, it is unlikely to be the answer because of the fact that it is too crude and direct—something that you cannot associate with the author’s style of writing. Options 2 and 3 get eliminated because they are talking positively about sudokus—something that goes against our expectations of what the author is likely to convey.

Question Type 6: Questions that Ask You to Summarise an Argument

This is another important question type which has been regularly seen in the CAT and other top Management Entrance Exams. A summary is defined as the reduction of a large amount of information to its most important points. You need to remember the following points about summarising in order to be able to spot summaries effectively:

(1) While achieving a reduction of the passage into its summary, care is taken to ensure that the main idea of the passage is properly communicated—i.e., there is no compromise or dilution of the sense of the main idea communicated by the passage while framing the summary. The summary might have the main idea stated in the original words of the author or in fresh words which will essentially convey the same meaning. This factor should always be kept in mind while solving summary based questions. Hence, recognising the main idea of the passage while reading the original text for the first time is extremely crucial for identifying the correct summary.

A good process to follow in trying to recognise the summary is to go back to the questions:

• Who or what is the original text talking about? (Answer: TOPIC of the text); and

• What is the main idea about the topic that is being conveyed by the original text? (Answer: MAIN IDEA of the text)

Then, you go on to the alternative summaries available and ask the same questions again with respect to the proposed summary.

• Who or what is the summary talking about? (Answer: TOPIC of the summary) and;

• What is the main idea about the topic that is being conveyed by the summary? (Answer: MAIN IDEA of the summary.)

For the correct option, the two answers that emerge out of these questions should be exactly the same as the two answers that emerged out of the original text.

(2) Significant reduction from the original text to the summary is generally achieved by either condensing or removing altogether the supporting details in the passage. In many cases, it is not even necessary to mention some of the details presented in the original paragraph in order to write a good summary.

(3) Very often, authors of texts repeat the main idea several times while writing. This is done to ensure that their main idea is hammered into the minds of the reader several times and in several ways so that the gaps (if any) in understanding the main idea may be removed.

Needless to say, in the summary, the main idea will be written only once—and that too in one sentence only. Any repetitions of ideas present in the original text are removed from the summary.

Consider the following example:

Jaya and Devika are both successful women who are also members of a socially disadvantaged section of the society. Jaya has a firm belief in positive discrimination. By positive discrimination she believes that the negative discrimination that society has subjected her section of the society which can only be offset through reverse discrimination. She believes that if positions of economic, social and political eminence, power and honor are offered principally to historically disadvantaged sections of society, then these groups will begin to play a more significant role in society today.

Devika, on the other hand, feels that she has succeeded in her chosen field of work on her hard work and on her own merits. She thinks that the principle of positive discrimination is flawed since it will result in the lowering of standards and decreases competition between similarly qualified personnel who will expect to achieve positions because of their factors other than rather than their suitability for the particular position.

Which of the following best sums up Jaya’s argument?

(A) Positive discrimination will encourage more people to apply for jobs, previously unavailable to them.

(B) Positive discrimination will give extra opportunities to socially disadvantaged sections of the society.

(C) Quality and professionalism will improve because of the greater number of positions held by members of minority groups.

(D) Positive discrimination will remove deep rooted prejudices against the weaker sections of society from the work arena.

The Question Type 7: Questions that Ask You to Identify the Relevance of the Argument

Relevant information questions are framed with the objective of testing the student’s abilities to understand the main idea of the passage. The student is expected to test various options for their relevance to the arguments presented.

A relevant piece of information can be defined as something that affects the argument— either positively by strengthening it or negatively by weakening it. The degree to which the argument is affected in either direction is not a factor while testing the relevance of the information.

In some cases, information is relevant to the argument simply because it has the effect of either elaborating or explaining or expanding the main point.

Obviously, when the argument is not affected by the information provided in any way, it becomes irrelevant in the context of the text provided.

Another way in which you will have to test the reasonableness of an argument is by linking the information to how it helps you judge an assumption in the argument. Does the information whose relevance you have to judge have any effect on how reasonable an assumption underlying the argument is? Does it make the assumption more valid and reasonable? Does it reduce the reasonableness of the assumption of the argument? If the answer to either of these is yes, then it automatically makes the information reasonable.

Consider the following example:

A service oriented company, Bharadwaj Inc., included in its annual balance sheet and P&L accounts presented to its shareholders at its AGM, the following note on its policy of accounting:

Fixed assets are stated in the consolidated balance sheet at cost minus accumulated depreciation and amortization. Depreciation is provided on all fixed assets, except land. This is done to reflect the true value of the asset. The writing off of their cost is done by using the Straight Line Method of depreciation over the estimated economically useful lives of the respective assets.

The cost of leasehold improvements, if any, is amortized over the term of the remaining number of years of the lease in equal annual installments.

Which of the following statements is relevant to, but not consistent with, the above accounting policy?

(A) The economic useful life of land and buildings is assumed to be 40 years, and Bharadwaj Inc., therefore, employs a depreciation rate of 2.5% per annum.

(B) Bharadwaj Inc. include in their plant, equipment whose historical cost is Rs. 1.5 crore. This is mentioned at its historical cost itself, even though this equipment is more than 10 years old and the depreciation rate on plant and machinery has been 1.5% for many years.

(C) The company spent Rs. 30 lakh on improving a building, which is leased. The period of the lease was seven years, but the lease must be renewed in two years time. The company provided for amortization at 50% of the amount for this year.

(D) None of these

The correct answer is B.

Question Type 8: Questions that Ask You to Evaluate the Method of the Argument

Questions based on the method of the argument, ask the student to identify the technique applied by the author of the argument in order to make his argument, i.e., the logic for the support of the claim that the author is making.

Method questions are normally general about the entire argument, but can be sometimes specific about a part of the argument.

Some examples of the kinds of options the method based questions might give

(1) The author argues from a small sample to a large population.

(2) The author compares two parallel events and argues on the basis of parallels and contrasts.

(3) The author uses an analogy to present his case.

(4) The author transfers a cause and effect relationship from one field to another.

(5) The author uses an appeal to popular opinion in order to make his point.

(6) The author is making a prediction based on the evidence from events of the past.

(7) The author attacks the opponent rather than attacking his argument.

(8) The author discusses two diverse issues by comparing commonalities between

them.

(9) The author makes an extrapolation of a personal experience into a general case.

(10) The author argues Ifomthe specific to the generic.

(H) The author argues Ifomthe generic to the specific.

In order to solve questions based on Method, ask yourself how the author has reached the conclusion and in what context each part of the evidence is presented.

A famous judge stated that if murder is a worse crime than blackmail and blackmail is a worse crime than theft, then murder is a much worser crime than theft.

Which is a correct analysis of the above argument?

(A) A case operating in one situation will also be operative in another situation, if both situations are characterised in identical terms.

(B) A case that operates under certain conditions will surely be operative in other situations in which the same conditions are present in a more acute form.

(C) A case that clearly expresses the purpose it was meant to serve will also apply in other situations in which the identical purpose may be served.

(D) None of the above.

Γhe correct answer is D.

Question Type 9: Questions that Ask You to Identify the Flaws/Fallacies in an Argument

Flaw based questions are similar to method based questions. The only difference is that unlike in the case of method questions where the validity of the argument does not matter, in flaw based questions, the validity of the argument matters. You need to identify whether there is an error in the entire argument or whether it is in a specific part of the argument.

Consider the following questions based on IlawsZfallacies in an argument.

Roma: The number of accidents on state and national highways this year in the state of Kamataka, where the speed limit was lowered to fifty kmph an hour two years ago, is clear evidence that speed restrictions rigorously enforced, make drivers more aware of the dangers of going too fast.

Aamir: Wrong. If you take a close look at the records it will show you that the number of accidents has been falling ever since the introduction of newer and stricter penalties for traffic rales violations, which happened two years before the lowering of the speed limit.

Which of the following best describes the weak point in Roma’s statement upon which Aamir focuses?

(A) The decrease in highway accidents may be a temporary phenomenon.

(B) The evidence Roma cites comes only from one area.

(C) No exact statistics for freeway accidents are given by Roma.

(D) Roma fails to provide concrete evidence to prove a direct causative relationship between the cause and the effect.

∕J⅛The correct answer is D.

Question Type 10: Questions that Ask You to Identify Cause-Effect Relationships

Cause-effect relationships are commonly used in all types of argumentations. We have studied this in detail under Reading Comprehension as well as under the chapter on Paragraph Jumbles. Questions of this type will ask you to spot/reason out causal relationships between diverse events/phenomena. Look at the following question in order to get a clearer picture of such questions:

In India in 1990, there were, on an average 14 deaths at birth (infant mortality) per 1,00,000 population. By 2000 there were 11, and by 2001, 8. Today, there are 5 deaths at birth per 1,00,000 population, and it is anticipated that the downward trend will continue.

Each of the following, if true, would help account for this trend except:

(A) Medical care is more widespread and available.

(B) More effective birth control methods have been implemented.

(C) The number of pediatricians per 10,000 population has increased.

(D) Midwifery has declined in favor of doctors.

The correct answer is D.